Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 13:38
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Is the Philippines PH a poor 3rd world or 4th world country forever and forever?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
What do flat Earthers think causes the "magical downward force"?
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Scientists May Have Discovered a Surprising Health Benefit of Mango - EatingWell
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.